At a loss how to understand this modal case

Some native speakers on reddit answered that the following sentence, "By the time you get home, I should have cleaned the house", is wrong and doesn't make any sense if "should have cleaned" is used to refer to the future event.

https://thegrammarexchange.infopop.cc/topic/should-have-done-etc-vs-future

But in the above link, a native speaker answered the above sentence is correct, and the sentence is from a grammar book.

---

---

And as for the below sentences A and B,

A.The next interview may be more productive if you make it clear what work or thinking the student should have completed by then.

B. Perhaps we'll learn more from the experiments next week. You should have started your tests by then as well. "

Some native speakers answered A and B don't work, because of "should have completed/started", but in this link : https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/43312/should-as-future-perfect-modal , StoneyB commented it's valid, although unusual.

---

---

Q1) So I'm curious why answers are different.

Q2) If context is clear enough that X in "by X" is clearly referring to the future, can we use "should have done" to describe the future event? (It seems we can, judging by the answer and comment in the links.

Q3) If Q2 is correct, can we use "may/might/would/ought to/could/must" to describe the future event as well, if context is clear?

Please answer all the three questions and understand the points of what I'm asking about.

Thank you very much.