Greetings!
As far as I know, the next sentences are all correct:
(1a) He got divorced, as his parents had years before.
(1b) He got divorced, as his parents had done years before.
(1c) He got divorced, as had his parents years before.
(1d) He got divorced, as had done his parents years before.
(1e) He got divorced and so had his parents years before.
(1f) He got divorced and so had done his parents years before.
> This means we can use both one ("had") and several ("had done") auxiliary verbs.
By such a logic, I made up the following sentences:
Mother asks her son John and his friend Peter: Are you hungry?
John answers:
(2a) Yes, I would eat something, as my friend would.
(2b) Yes, I would eat something, as my friend would do.
(2c) Yes, I would eat something, as would my friend.
(2d) Yes, I would eat something, as would do my friend.
(2e) Yes, I would eat something and so would my friend.
(2f) Yes, I would eat something and so would do my friend.
John answers: Yes, I would eat something.
Peter:
(3a) As I would.
(3b) As I would do.
(3c) As would I.
(3d) As would do I.
(3e) So would I.
(3f) So would do I.
Do you agree that #2a-f and #3a-f are all correct as #1a-f? Thanks!
Americans don't use a form of do in those cases. It's almost exclusively a part of British English. Being American, I'll pass on this one because most of those with do sound wrong to my ear.
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Americans don't use a form of do in those cases. It's almost exclusively a part of British English.
Being American, I'll pass on this one because most of those with do sound wrong to my ear. Wait for someone British to answer.
CJ