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Kooyeen Posted 18 years ago
Speech & Pronunciation

aspiration after s

0 Hi,02br
00I know there's usually no aspiration after S... usually or always? I have trouble with certain words like:02br
02br
01b00disclose ->02b00 dis-close or di-sclose?02br
01b00mistreat ->02b00 mis-treat or mi-streat02br
01b00Wisconsin ->02b00 Wis-consin or Wi-sconsin?02br
00etc.02br
02br
00And if there's something weird going on, is there a general rule for that? Thanks 050010id1
  

Top answer

1b 00disclose ->02b 00 dis-close02br 02br 00"dis" is a common prefix for many words. The "s" has its own strong sound: dis-respect, dis-pute, dis-card02br 02br 01b 00mistreat ->02b 00 mis-treat 02br 02br 00"mis" is also a common prefix. mis-took,mis-place.

  • 1b 00disclose ->02b 00 dis-close02br 02br 00"dis" is a common prefix for many words.
  • The "s" has its own strong sound: dis-respect, dis-pute, dis-card02br 02br 01b 00mistreat ->02b 00 mis-treat 02br 02br 00"mis" is also a common prefix.
  • mis-took,mis-place.
  • It also has a strong "s" sound.
  • 02br 02br 01b 00Wisconsin ->02b 00 Wis-con- sin : both "s" have a strong sound in this name.
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9 Answers
0
1b00disclose ->02b00 dis-close02br
02br
00"dis" is a common prefix for many words. The "s" has its own strong sound: dis-respect, dis-pute, dis-card02br
02br
01b00mistreat ->02b00 mis-treat 02br
02br
00"mis" is also a common prefix. mis-took,mis-place. It also has a strong "s" sound. 02br
0
0 Hi,02br
00yes, but I was referring to aspiration of T's, K's and P's. I eventually found out they are aspirated after S when the S is part of a different phoneme. So the prefix "mis-" is a phoneme, and so the T in mistune (mis-tune) is aspirated. Any other opinion is still welcome, of course. 050010id1
0
0Hi Kooyeen,02br
00This is what J.C. Wells said:01blockquote
02br
10English /p t k/ are aspirated when initial in a full-vowelled syllable. Elsewhere they have less aspiration or none. Hence the aspiration of the /p/ after the /m/ in plum pie, but its absence in plump eye. The /t/ of a tease is aspirated, as is that of attack /ə.ˈtæk/, but not that of at ea
0
0Hey! There's a lot of stuff there... maybe too much, but I'll take a look, thanks.05002br
00I saw they talk about "syllabification", and that's one thing I was interested about. Because whether a T after an S is aspirated or not depends on whether the T is in considered to be in a different syllable or not. And another relate issue is... is the P in HAPPY part of the first or sec
0
0In my 16th edition Cambridge English Pronouncing Dictionary, it says, in the introduction,01blockquote
02br
10although native speakers may well find no difficulty in dividing words into syllables, it seems that learners of English have trouble in doing so, . . . 12br
10No completely satisfactory scheme of syllable division can be produced - all sets of rul
0
0No aspiration in any of these cases; dis01b00c02b00lose, mis01b00t02b00reat, Wis01b00c02b00onsin -- just a neutral 01b00c02b00, 01b00t02b00, 01b00c02b00. Well, maybe a little on that 01b00t02b00 -- mostly because of the following 01
0
1blockquote
01cite10CalifJim12cite10No aspiration in any of these cases; dis11b10c12b10lose, mis11b10t12b10reat, Wis11b10c12b10onsin 12blockquote
10Hi,02br
00that's interesting. It seems everyone pronounces them their own way then. I saw (in a forum) sever
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10Kooyeen12cite10If you said ""mistune" (tune -> mistune), would you aspirate the T? I would, because it's part of a different part (morpheme?)12blockquote
10 I would probably aspirate that 01b00t02b00 at least a little, but not for the reason you give (I think). I think it's the stres
0
1blockquote
01cite10CalifJim12cite10 You may be trying to fine tune your pronunciation below the noise level, if you know what I mean.12blockquote
10Yeah... You mean that there are some features that 99% of native speakers would not notice, and so they tell nothing about someone's accent?02br
00Anyway, you are right. I am al

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