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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

As if ... would affect / affected

Hi!

Is there a difference in meaning between the following sentences and is one more grammatically correct than the other?

He noticed his mood had changed, as if the mere act of coming down the mountain affected his emotions.

He noticed his mood had changed, as if the mere act of coming down the mountain would affect his emotions.

Thanks,

EStjarn
  

Top answer

Both are wrong. It should read 'as if... had affected'.

  • Both are wrong.
  • It should read 'as if...
  • had affected'.
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6 Answers
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Both are wrong. It should read 'as if...had affected'.
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Clarification:

The statement is meant as a hypothesis that would hold true always, not just this particular time.

... as if the mere act of coming down the mountain [always] affected his emotions.

... as if the mere act of coming down the mountain would [always] affect his emotions.

EStjarn
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The intent is unclear in that structure. Since it mentions 'the act' (which presumably just transpired) and 'the mountain' (which refers to only a specific mountain), both conditions seem unlikely to involve any universal hypothesis. I suggest that you restructure and clarify using 2 sentences perhaps instead of a dependent clause.
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I agree, thank you, so I'll restructure:

... as if the mere act of coming down a mountain [always] affected his emotions.

... as if the mere act of coming down a mountain would [always] affect his emotions.

My questions remain, however: is there a difference in meaning between the two sentences and is one more correct than the o
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I'd say that the first suggests belief in the possibility while the second one suggests disbelief in the possibility.
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Thanks for taking your time, Mister Micawber!

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