I have seen in dictionaries that "arrogate" is used with "to". For example - " He arrogated to himself the right of deciding dogmatically what was orthodox doctrine. --Macaulay." But I read the following sentence in the The Economist. Is this usage correct? I could not find this usage("arrogate" being used with "for") in any dictionary. "It often refers to a bunch of party-approved village apparatchiks arrogating ownership rights for themselves." Please help.
Thanks.
Top answer
Hi, 'To' is more common, but I wouldn't say 'for' is wrong. Clive
— Clive
Hi, 'To' is more common, but I wouldn't say 'for' is wrong.
Clive
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