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Ansonguy Posted 7 years ago
Grammar

[arouse people's fears] or [arouse fears in people]

I have made up the two sentences below.

(1a) Meteorologists say with conviction that a possible earthquake could be the main factor that arouses people's fears right now.

(2a) Last night, a sudden ground shake and a gas leak could be two of the several factors that aroused fears in people.


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My non-native English speaking friends thought my sentences were wrong, so they revised them to make (1b) and (2b) below.

(1b) Meteorologists say with conviction that a possible earthquake could be the main factor that arouses fears in people right now.

(2b) Last night, a sudden ground shake and a gas leak could be two of the several factors that aroused people's fears.


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Basically, they switched the phrases in bold in my versions to make theirs. They think "arouses fears in people" in (1b) works better because the sentence is in the present tense that describes people's present feelings. Next, they think "aroused people's fears" in (2b) fits the sentence better because it is in the past tense, focusing on how people felt at the time.

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I am not sure whose versions are correct. What is your opinion? Thank you very much for your time and help.

  

Top answer

ansonguy What is your opinion? The choice has nothing to do with tense. Both "fears in people" and "people's fears" can be used with any tense.

  • ansonguy What is your opinion?
  • The choice has nothing to do with tense.
  • Both "fears in people" and "people's fears" can be used with any tense.
  • They both have the same meaning.
  • They are both correct.
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1 Answers
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ansonguyWhat is your opinion?

The choice has nothing to do with tense.

Both "fears in people" and "people's fears" can be used with any tense. They both have the same meaning. They are both correct.

However, note that "people's fears" is used hundreds of times more often than "fears in people" according to data found in Google's application ca

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