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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Aristotle

It is said that

-“All students who studied are persons who got good grades” implies
Some students who studied are persons who got good grades.”

It makes no sense. 'Some students' must be corrected to 'some of those students'. Do you agree? I am not sure whether the translator got the wrong idea from the Greek original.
  

Top answer

Anonymous 'Some students' must be corrected to 'some of those students' That wouldn't be much of a correction because both expressions mean the same thing. Provided there are any students who studied, the implication is correct as it stands. Recall that in logic 'some' has the special meaning of 'there exists (at least one)'.

  • Anonymous 'Some students' must be corrected to 'some of those students' That wouldn't be much of a correction because both expressions mean the same thing.
  • Provided there are any students who studied, the implication is correct as it stands.
  • Recall that in logic 'some' has the special meaning of 'there exists (at least one)'.
  • Anonymous "All students who studied are persons who got good grades” implies“Some students who studied are persons who got good grades.
  • ~ If all who studied got good grades, then there exists at least one student who studied who got good grades.
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2 Answers
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Anonymous'Some students' must be corrected to 'some of those students'
That wouldn't be much of a correction because both expressions mean the same thing.

Provided there are any students who studied, the implication is correct as it stands. Recall that in logic 'some' has the special meaning of 'there exists (at least one)'.
Anonymo
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Let S be the set of students who studied and let T be the set of people who got good grades. The implication is

S ? Ø ? ? x?S, x?T ? ? x?S ? x?T



Suppose there are students who studied. If all of those who studied got good grades, then we can find one student who studied and got good grades.

I don't see any difference between "some stude

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