Aren't I?
I understand that the question Aren't I? is the informal equivalent of Am I not?.
My question is: is Aren't in Aren't I? an inflected form of the verb as, for example, Am is in Am I not??
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I think that Aren't in Aren't I? is inflected because of the ungrammaticality of *Are not I? In such a case, it seems to me Aren't is undivided and inflected form of the verb "be".
Top answer
While the link below does not necessarily answer your question directly, it might be of interest to you. " was considered incorrect by so many so recently. I thought it had been "settled law" for centuries that it was correct.
- While the link below does not necessarily answer your question directly, it might be of interest to you.
- " was considered incorrect by so many so recently.
- I thought it had been "settled law" for centuries that it was correct.
- CJ
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While the link below does not necessarily answer your question directly, it might be of interest to you.
https://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/arent-i-or-are-i-not-correct-usage
I myself had no idea that "Aren't I?" was considered incorrect by so man
0According to this, the "aren't" in "Aren't I?" is a respelling of "an't", which was an earlier contraction of "am not". Other sources agree that its origin is as a contraction of "am not", but may differ slightly in the detail of how it arose.
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