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Shailendra2819962 Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
Are both sentences grammatically correct?
"I'm going to make you suffer when you sleep."
or
"I'm going to make you suffer when you are asleep."?
Doesn't the first sentence apply the correlation of the sleeping pattern being taken place regularly, whereas the second one emphasizes the action itself?
Or is there still a preferred option between these two, especially when you're talking about a one-time happening? Thanx in advance.
or
"I'm going to make you suffer when you are asleep."?
Doesn't the first sentence apply the correlation of the sleeping pattern being taken place regularly, whereas the second one emphasizes the action itself?
Or is there still a preferred option between these two, especially when you're talking about a one-time happening? Thanx in advance.
Top answer
Hello Shailendra; Welcome to English Forums. Thank you for joining us! Both sentences are grammatical.
- Hello Shailendra; Welcome to English Forums.
- Thank you for joining us!
- Both sentences are grammatical.
- There is no significant difference in the meaning between either of them or this one: I'm going to make you suffer when you are sleeping.
- None of them imply a one-time event.
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1 Answers
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Hello Shailendra; Welcome to English Forums. Thank you for joining us!
Both sentences are grammatical.
There is no significant difference in the meaning between either of them or this one:
I'm going to make you suffer when you are sleeping.
None of them imply a one-time event. You would have to add a time expression to add that meaning.
Both sentences are grammatical.
There is no significant difference in the meaning between either of them or this one:
I'm going to make you suffer when you are sleeping.
None of them imply a one-time event. You would have to add a time expression to add that meaning.
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