archaic use

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-------------------------One of the definitions of MINE are follows.archaic(Used before a vowel) my: tears did fill mine eyes------------------------You, native speakers of English, treat this as an ungrammatical sentence today? I want to know whether "archaic" denotes directly "ungrammatical" or not.https://books.google.co.kr/books?id=eLsBCgAAQBAJ&pg=PT17&lpg=PT17&dq=%22he+died.+My+hour+is+come%22&source=bl&ots=G2h2Gwka05&sig=aqjsWxgkFu0VmR_QRHCQ68lGDYo&hl=en&sa=X&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22he%20died.%20My%20hour%20is%20come%22&f=falseAn Advanced English Syntax that C.T. Onions wrote in1929 said that Day dawns./He died./My hour is come... Some said that My hour is come is ungrammatical today. Others tell me that My hour is come is not ungrammatical but archaic. I'm confused.

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

AnonymousYou, native speakers of English, treat this as an ungrammatical sentence today?

Yes. Even if a word or word group was once grammatical centuries ago, if it is not grammatical in modern English, we say it's ungrammatical. We assume everyone on this forum is interested in learning or attempting to improve their mastery of modern English.

AnonymousI want to know whether "archaic" denotes directly "ungrammatical" or not.

For most such entries in dictionaries, it means it was used a very long time ago, not that it was ungrammatical at the time.

AnonymousSome said that My hour is come is ungrammatical today. Others tell me that My hour is come is not ungrammatical but archaic. I'm confused.

There is no need to trouble yourself over such insignificant details. What is ungrammatical depends on the time period when it was written. What used to be grammatical long ago may be ungrammatical now, and vice versa. Concentrate on modern English.
_________

On any test of proficiency in English nowadays, you will be judged mistaken if you write something like "mine eyes".

CJ

Philip · Answer

Archaic does not denote lack of correctness, but I would not use a word so designated unless there is a specific (poetic, perhaps) reason for using it. "Mine eyes" is, of course, grammatical in an old-fashioned sense; but because it is archaic, we shouldn't generally use it.

AlpheccaStars · Answer

AnonymousI want to know whether "archaic" denotes directly "ungrammatical" or not.

No, it means that it used to be grammatical, and the language evolved. These old forms are not used any more.

You still see archaic forms in old songs that are still sung today.

Anonymous · Answer

CalifJimThere is no need to trouble yourself over such insignificant details. What is ungrammatical depends on the time period when it was written. What used to be grammatical long ago may be ungrammatical now, and vice versa. Concentrate on modern English.

Thank you for your help. Recently, I have seen "MINE" as a possessive for the first time after watching a manga . So, I have looked up "MINE" in the dictionary. Reading the definition and example above, I have been curious about that. In spite of a modern comic translated into English of recent times,

The translater would have used on purpose “MARK MINE WORDS” in the upper left to show the character of old-fashioned manners. In this case, there would be a specific reason for using "MINE" as an possessive. I’ll bear in mind that on any test of proficiency in English, I will be judged mistaken if I replace "MY" with "MINE."

Blue Jay · Answer

Mark mine words would be wrong anyway. Mine was used before a vowel, and my before a consonant.

Anonymous · Answer

PhilipArchaic does not denote lack of correctness, but I would not use a word so designated unless there is a specific (poetic, perhaps) reason for using it. "Mine eyes" is, of course, grammatical in an old-fashioned sense; but because it is archaic, we shouldn't generally use it.

I’ll keep in mind that archaic does not denote lack of correctness. If there is a specific reason for using it in poetry, manga, etc., “Mine eyes“ will be used in modern days. I reading the section of the chapter, “MARK MINE WORDS” in the upper left,

it aroused my curiosity. I have you to thank.

Anonymous · Answer

Blue JayMark mine words would be wrong anyway. Mine was used before a vowel, and my before a consonant.

Come to think of it, your comment really hits the nail on the head.

CalifJim · Answer

AnonymousThe translater would have used on purpose “MARK MINE WORDS” in the upper left to show the character of old-fashioned manners.

Yes, and the translator is basically a fool, because even in earlier times "mine" was not used like that.

The translator is just making up things that seem old-fashioned, and even the people who lived back then would not consider his translation grammatical.

CJ

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