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Antonio Posted 23 years ago
Grammar

Anyone so kind as to answer, please?

Hallo, it´s me again. I know I must have started to be a bit tedious for you all, but if you are so kind to answer another question for me, please!?Emotion: wink

Today I have read this sentence: "Mary had John wash the car"; no problem with the meaning, I understand it, but as for the grammar... shouldn´t it be "Mary had John to wash the car"?. Is this second way incorrect? if so, why?

Thanks beforehand again, you are really helpful.

Antonio.
  

Top answer

Both forms are possible to imply "cause somebody to do sothing" or "tell somebody to do something". The form without "to" is common in American English.

— Raul

  • Both forms are possible to imply "cause somebody to do sothing" or "tell somebody to do something".
  • The form without "to" is common in American English.
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6 Answers
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Both forms are possible to imply "cause somebody to do sothing" or "tell somebody to do something". The form without "to" is common in American English.
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It is a sentence structure that needs to be followed.

Another eg. " When he comes back, please have him call meEmotion: smile
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Is that an obligation or a request? Would he agree to that?
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Is it a request because you have used "please"? If I were to ask someone to do so and did not want them to so unless they were interested, what would you say?
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I don't quite understand your question Maj, but if "please" was not used in the sentence, it would be a command, not a request.
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