Another question regarding ARTICLE
The passage below comes from a website as follows:
http://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/how-thru-turned-into-through?utm_campaign=newsletter&utm_medium=email&utm_source=wotd&utm_content=speedbump The spelling of through has gone through a number of changes since it first appeared in English around 700 AD: acquiring
an o, moving
the r around a bit, claiming
a g, dropping each of these things willy-nilly. In fact, the spelling thru predates through by over 100 years. Why?... Scholars have found over 50 spelling variants of th
rough, everything from th
ru to tho
rgh to tho
rth to th
roche to th
rough.
In this passage concerning the various mutations in the spelling of 'through' the indefinite article 'a/an' is put before 'o' and 'g' but the definite article 'the' before 'r'.
Based on my thread on indefinite article as follows:
I thought over this passage.
Maybe 'r' has always been in the word 'through', 'thru', 'thorgh' and the rest of over 50 spelling variants, so the author put 'the' before 'r' indicating 'r' is definite.
But 'o' or 'g' is sometimes added and other times omitted, so the author put 'a/an' before it hinting it is indefinite, that is, it is summoned whenever it's needed from wherever it comes, so it's indefinite.
Do you agree with my line of thought?
Regards.