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Stenka25 Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

Another question regarding ARTICLE

Another question regarding ARTICLE

The passage below comes from a website as follows:
http://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/how-thru-turned-into-through?utm_campaign=newsletter&utm_medium=email&utm_source=wotd&utm_content=speedbump
The spelling of through has gone through a number of changes since it first appeared in English around 700 AD: acquiring an o, moving the r around a bit, claiming a g, dropping each of these things willy-nilly. In fact, the spelling thru predates through by over 100 years. Why?... Scholars have found over 50 spelling variants of through, everything from thru to thorgh to thorth to throche to through.

In this passage concerning the various mutations in the spelling of 'through' the indefinite article 'a/an' is put before 'o' and 'g' but the definite article 'the' before 'r'.
Based on my thread on indefinite article as follows:

I thought over this passage.

Maybe 'r' has always been in the word 'through', 'thru', 'thorgh' and the rest of over 50 spelling variants, so the author put 'the' before 'r' indicating 'r' is definite.
But 'o' or 'g' is sometimes added and other times omitted, so the author put 'a/an' before it hinting it is indefinite, that is, it is summoned whenever it's needed from wherever it comes, so it's indefinite.

Do you agree with my line of thought?

Regards.
  

Top answer

If the author gave that kind of thought to the use of the articles, you have a good idea that makes sense to me. On the other hand, the author might not have used the article as purposely as you think. "

  • If the author gave that kind of thought to the use of the articles, you have a good idea that makes sense to me.
  • On the other hand, the author might not have used the article as purposely as you think.
  • "
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4 Answers
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If the author gave that kind of thought to the use of the articles, you have a good idea that makes sense to me. On the other hand, the author might not have used the article as purposely as you think. The author might not have noticed the different ways he/she used "a/an" and "the."
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The spelling of through has gone through a number of changes since it first appeared in English around 700 AD: acquiring an o, moving the r around a bit, claiming a g, dropping each of these things *****-nilly.
  • acquiring an o (the "o" in the present spelling was not there originally.)
  • moving the r around a bit (the "r" in the present spelling had dif
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Thanks a lot for your reply, Englishmaven.
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Thanks a lot as always, AlpheccaStars.
Your reply made clear everything regarding this question I posed.

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