An enemy or the enemy?

Question

Hi. As to James 4:4, I don't think we can use the definite article "the" before the word "enemy" for the New International Version, but could we use the indefinite article "a" before the word "enemy" for the King James Version? Thank you for your help in advance.

James 4:4 (New International Version)

⁴You adulterous people, don’t you know that friendship with the world means enmity against God? Therefore, anyone who chooses to be a friend of the world becomes an enemy of God.

James 4:4 (King James Version)

⁴Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.

Clive · Accepted Answer

As to James 4:4, I don't think we can use the definite article "the" before the word "enemy" for the New International Version, Both 'a' and 'the' are possible. 'An enemy' sounds better, because it parallels 'a friend'.
It's a matter of style.

but could we use the indefinite article "an" before the word "enemy" for the King James Version? Thank you for your help in advance.

James 4:4 (New International Version)

⁴You adulterous people, don’t you know that friendship with the world means enmity against ***? Therefore, anyone who chooses to be a friend of the world becomes an enemy of ***.

James 4:4 (King James Version)

⁴Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with ***? Whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of ***. See my comment above about style. But be aware that ideas about style have changed over the centuries. You can't apply modern English ideas and grammar to the King James Bible.

eg Modern English would use the capital M.

Clive

Anonymous · Answer

Hi. Thank you. From your response, I venture to guess that you would say the following two are correct. But as to what they mean, I think they mean different things - and I think it is not "a matter of style." No. 1 means he is one of many friends of Joe's, and no. 2 means he is the only friend of Joe's.

1. He is a friend of Joe's.
2. He is the friend of Joe's.

Also, as to the following two, I also think different interpretations result. No. 1 means they are enemies, but not necessary all the enemies (although leaving the possibility that they are all), but No. 2 means all, that is all his enemies. What do you think? Thank you again for your help in advance.

1. They are friends of John's.
2. They are the friends of John's.

Clive · Answer

Articles can be surprisingly difficult to learn. And to teach!

From your response, I venture to guess that you would say the following two are correct. But as to what they mean, I think they mean different things - and I think it is not "a matter of style." No. 1 means he is one of many friends of Joe's, and no. 2 means he is the only friend of Joe's.

1. He is a friend of Joe's. Yes, Joe has more than one friend.
Yes. The underlying idea of the 'apostrophe ess' is 'one friend among Joe's group of friends'.

2. He is the friend of Joe's.
No. He can't be the only friend, because the 'apostrophe ess' indicates that Joe has a group of friends, as explained above.

He is the friend of Joe. This suggests that Joe has only one friend.
But when one says in the Bible that someone is 'the enemy of ***', it does not really mean that *** has only one enemy. It is just a literary, rather rhetorical device. A matter of style, in talking about an important subject like ***..
We can talk about *** in ways that would sound unsuitable or even silly if we were talking instead about Joe.

Also, as to the following two, I also think different interpretations result. No. 1 means they are enemies, you mean friends but not necessary all the enemies (although leaving the possibility that they are all), but No. 2 means all, that is all his enemies. What do you think? Please see my comments above.

1. They are friends of John's.
2. They are the friends of John's.

An enemy or the enemy?

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