0
English 1b3 Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Ambiguous phrasal verb

Why would the phrasal verb chime in have the following two definitions which are complete opposites (according to www.thefreedictionary.com)?

1. To interrupt the speech of others, especially with an unwanted opinion.

2. To join in harmoniously.


In writing, how on earth are you to know which definition is being applied (aside from greater context, which may not be available)?
  

Top answer

English 1b3 how on earth are you to know which definition is being applied I'll take that as a rhetorical question since there is no way to know if context is unavailable. CJ

  • English 1b3 how on earth are you to know which definition is being applied I'll take that as a rhetorical question since there is no way to know if context is unavailable.
  • CJ
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

15 Answers
0
English 1b3how on earth are you to know which definition is being applied
I'll take that as a rhetorical question since there is no way to know if context is unavailable.

CJ
0
Why do you think the two definitions were given then? Maybe I misunderstand how words' meanings are created...
0
English 1b3Why do you think the two definitions were given then?
Emotion: tongue tied

Because both
0
CalifJimThis is somewhat unusual, but not unique, in having rather conflicting ones.
Righteo. I can accept that
0
English 1b3why did you say 'This is... in having rather...'
This is unusual in having conflicting definitions. ~

This one is unusual in that it has ... ~
This one is unusual for the reason that it has ... ~
This one is unusual because it has ...
________________

The logical connection between the
0
CalifJimThe logical connection between the ideas is less specific in
Well said - totally understand that.

But what's not clear still is how this is correct:
CalifJimThis is unusual in having conflicting definitions.
Are you saying it is just another way of saying it along with 'in that it has,' for the reason that
0
English 1b3Why would the phrasal verb chime in have the following two definitions which are complete opposites (according to www.thefreedictionary.com)? 1. To interrupt the speech of others, especially with an unwanted opinion.2. To join in harmoniously. In writing, how on earth are you to know which definition is being applied (aside from greater context, which may not b
0
English 1b3Are you saying it is just another way of saying it along with 'in that it has,' for the reason that is has' and 'because it has'?
Yes.
English 1b3Maybe the problem is that the meaning of/use of 'in' here is something I'm not familiar with...
Possibly.

I happen to like that usage, and I don't think it's p
0
CalifJimI happen to like that usage, and I don't think it's particularly uncommon, so it wouldn't be a bad idea to become familiar with it.
OK
0
enoon"Chime in" does not mean "To interrupt the speech of others, especially with an unwanted opinion." There is the solution to your problem—never use "chime in" to mean that. I know the AHD says different, but I have never seen it used that way, and I don't believe anyone could understand you meant it that way. It can mean to interrupt to agree, perhaps unwantedly.

Related Questions