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Mercyful_fate Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Am I correct about the difference between these tenses

I have been in spain for two-years.

I have lived in spain for two-years.

I have been to spain.

The first one says that I moved to spain two-years ago and that I'm still in spain. And the second one says I was in spain two-years ago and I'm out of spain now. And the third one means that I have vistsed spain at some point in the past probably for a vacation or something.
  

Top answer

I believe your first and third statements are correct. that it began in the past (2 yrs ago) and continues at the present time. The sentence has the same construction as the first with the "have" .

— Anonymous

  • I believe your first and third statements are correct.
  • that it began in the past (2 yrs ago) and continues at the present time.
  • The sentence has the same construction as the first with the "have" .
  • I don't think you should use the hyphen connecting two and years and you should capitalize Spain, the name of a country.
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3 Answers
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I believe your first and third statements are correct.

I think your second statement is not correct I think it should be the same as the first......that it began in the past (2 yrs ago) and continues at the present time. The sentence has the same construction as the first with the "have" .

I don't think you should use the hyphen connecting two and years and you should c
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Thanks for pointing out my mistakes. But by what you say, does that mean that "have been living" and "have lived" have the same meaning?
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In your above context, yes. Without a time frame, they are different.

"I have been living in Spain." suggests that you still live there.

"I have lived in Spain." suggests that you no longer live there.

"I have lived in Spain for two years." suggests that you still live there.

The past perfect would be less ambiguous: "I had lived in Spain for two years." = no l
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