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Anonymous Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

am beaten, have been beaten

'I am beaten by her' can be paraphrased into 'I have been beaten by her' with the speaker's intent staying intact?
  

Top answer

No. "have been" refers to the past. "am beaten" implies past, present and future.

— AlpheccaStars

  • No.
  • "have been" refers to the past.
  • "am beaten" implies past, present and future.
  • By the way, neither of these are natural.
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6 Answers
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No.

"have been" refers to the past.
"am beaten" implies past, present and future.

By the way, neither of these are natural.
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AlpheccaStarsBy the way, neither of these are natural.
You mean that 'active voice' is preferred to 'passive voice' in that case? e.g. She beat me.
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AnonymousYou mean that 'active voice' is preferred to 'passive voice' in that case? e.g. She beat me.
Yes, especially when there is an agent.
We only use the passive voice when there is no clear agent.

I have been beaten.
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@ALpheccaStars: 'neither are' or 'neither is' please?
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What is the sentence?

Thomas isn't here and neither are his brothers.
Thomas isn't here and neither is his sister.
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