1.They can always call me.
2.They always can call me.
I wonder whether there is a difference in meaning and 2 is grammatically correct.
I think there is, because in 1, "always" modifies "call", but in 2, "always" modifies "me".
So..what I want to know are..
Q1) Is 2 grammatically correct?
Q2) In 2, does "always" modify "can" ?
Q3) Is there a difference in meaning between 1 and 2?
They can always call me. They always can call me. I wonder whether there is a difference in meaning and 2 is grammatically correct.
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fire11.They can always call me.
2.They always can call me.
I wonder whether there is a difference in meaning and 2 is grammatically correct.
This has been answered elsewhere. 2 is not typical, but not wrong. The meaning is the same.
fire1in 1, "always" modifies "call", but in 2, "always" modifies "me".