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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
All of my money
I have learned that 'All of us' is All=us, 'it all' is it=us. Then can I say that all is equal to my money in ' I lost all of my money'. I don't think all is equal to my money but the sentence structure is the same as I took it all ( all of it ). It is so confusing. Could you help me out please. Thank you in advance.
Top answer
Your explanation is rather confusing, too. However, in the phrases 'all of us' and 'all of my money', 'all' is a pronoun and it seems to me to refer unequivocally to 'us' and 'money' respectively.
- Your explanation is rather confusing, too.
- However, in the phrases 'all of us' and 'all of my money', 'all' is a pronoun and it seems to me to refer unequivocally to 'us' and 'money' respectively.
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3 Answers
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Your explanation is rather confusing, too.
However, in the phrases 'all of us' and 'all of my money', 'all' is a pronoun and it seems to me to refer unequivocally to 'us' and 'money' respectively.
However, in the phrases 'all of us' and 'all of my money', 'all' is a pronoun and it seems to me to refer unequivocally to 'us' and 'money' respectively.
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Thank you sir for taking your time and helping me. Then, how about 'all of the time'? In this case, I think we can not apply the same rule so we can not say 'all = the time'. Am I right? Sorry about not being smart about this.
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The structure 'All/None/Some/Most/Both/etc of the + noun' includes those pronouns and refers to the indicated portion of the noun used in all cases.
All of the time, all of the money, all of the spaghetti, all of the daffodils, all of the weather, etc.— the pronoun 'all' has the same relationship to its referent.
All of the time, all of the money, all of the spaghetti, all of the daffodils, all of the weather, etc.— the pronoun 'all' has the same relationship to its referent.
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