Dear all,
I write:
As in many languages, Old Babylonian kinship and body part terms, as well as a few other substantives, are “inalienable”, which means they take only the synthetic construction. The rest of Old Babylonian nouns is “alienable,” which means they admit both the synthetic and the analytical construction.
People correct me: "The rest of nouns ARE alienable".
What do you believe is more correct?
Best,
Sergey
Please do not post the same question more than once. Thread locked. CJ
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Please do not post the same question more than once.
Thread locked.
CJ