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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
agree to my having....
Could someone please explain the grammatical rationale behind the use of "my" instead of "me" in the following sentence: "Would he agree to my having a bouquet?" Why isn't the sentence written as "Would he agree to me having a bouquet?" Thanks!
Top answer
' has no reasonable meaning—it is the 'having' that needs to be agreed to. Having said that, the 'my' form is becoming less used nowadays.
- ' has no reasonable meaning—it is the 'having' that needs to be agreed to.
- Having said that, the 'my' form is becoming less used nowadays.
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2 Answers
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AnonymousCould someone please explain the grammatical rationale behind the use of "my" instead of "me" in the following sentence: "Would he agree to my having a bouquet?" Why isn't the sentence written as "Would he agree to me having a bouquet?"Because for strict grammarians, 'Would he agree to me?' has no reasonable meaning—it is the 'having' that needs to b
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MrM's answer should be clear enough but let me elaborate a bit more on this issue.
Strictly speaking, "my having" is correct and it functions as a gerund there. Still, you will often hear people say "me having" because the possessive and objective forms, in terms of their grammatical function, have become quite similar over the years and their usage is now somewhat random or so it seems t
Strictly speaking, "my having" is correct and it functions as a gerund there. Still, you will often hear people say "me having" because the possessive and objective forms, in terms of their grammatical function, have become quite similar over the years and their usage is now somewhat random or so it seems t
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