0
Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
After having spoken with him
After having spoken with him, we had decided not to go into town.
After speaking with him, we decided not to go into town.
What is the grammatical difference between these two sentences? What does the use of having and had do to the meaning? Can they be forgotten?
After speaking with him, we decided not to go into town.
What is the grammatical difference between these two sentences? What does the use of having and had do to the meaning? Can they be forgotten?
Top answer
Anonymous What is the grammatical difference between these two sentences? The first one is wrong grammar without further context authorizing use of the past perfect. These are your valid choices: After having spoken with him, we decided not to go into town.
- Anonymous What is the grammatical difference between these two sentences?
- The first one is wrong grammar without further context authorizing use of the past perfect.
- These are your valid choices: After having spoken with him, we decided not to go into town.
- After speaking with him, we decided not to go into town .
- There is no difference in intent, though the first one places the speaking more firmly in the past of the decision.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
1 Answers
0
AnonymousWhat is the grammatical difference between these two sentences?The first one is wrong grammar without further context authorizing use of the past perfect. These are your valid choices:
After having spoken with him, we decided not to go into town.
After speaking with him, we decided not to go into town.
There
0
Related Questions