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Jigneshbharati Posted 6 years ago
Grammar

After having been

El Pais, a Latin American country, has a new democratic government after having been a dictatorship for many years.https://writingcenter.unc.edu/tips-and-tools/transitions/ Please explain the use of "having been a dictatorship..."?

Is it part of the present perfect tense?

What is the grammatical form and function of "after" here?

  

Top answer

'after' is a preposition. If we place a verb form after a preposition, it has to be in the -ing form. This can be just the -ing form, or the perfect -ing form, which has 'having' and the past participle.

— CalifJim

  • 'after' is a preposition.
  • If we place a verb form after a preposition, it has to be in the -ing form.
  • This can be just the -ing form, or the perfect -ing form, which has 'having' and the past participle.
  • The second form is not the present perfect tense because the auxiliary 'have' is in the -ing form.
  • The present perfect tense never has the auxiliary 'have' in the -ing form.
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1 Answers
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'after' is a preposition. If we place a verb form after a preposition, it has to be in the -ing form. This can be just the -ing form, or the perfect -ing form, which has 'having' and the past participle.

The second form is not the present perfect tense because the auxiliary 'have' is in the -ing form. The present perfect tense never has the auxiliary 'have' in the -ing form.

So

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