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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Affect / effect

You guys probably get asked this a lot, but there is someone I know that refuses to accept the difference, no matter how much I explain it.

All I want to know is: which of the following two sentences is correct?

"I wonder what affect the BBC has had on making English the lingua franca."
"I wonder what effect the BBC has had on making English the lingua franca."

If possible, could you also explain why. I would also be very grateful if several people could give their analyses just so this guy doesn't just snob it off as one person's opinion.

Thanks in advance.
  

Top answer

Yes, we do. Affect as a noun has only psychological uses. The verbs have nothing in common.

  • Yes, we do.
  • Affect as a noun has only psychological uses.
  • The verbs have nothing in common.
  • I wonder what effect the BBC has had on making English the lingua franca.
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16 Answers
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Yes, we do. Affect as a noun has only psychological uses. The verbs have nothing in common.

I wonder what effect the BBC has had on making English the lingua franca.
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The dictionary can't serve as your authority?

With the exception of specific use in psychology, "affect" is a verb. From www.m-w.com: : to produce an effect upon: as a: to produce a material influence upon or alteration in <paralysis affected his limbs> b: to act upon (as a person or a person
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Anonymouswhich of the following two sentences is correct?
The second.

99% of the time, affect is a verb, and effect is a noun.

You have a noun here, so the chances are very slim that affect could be correct.

But even supposing that we're dealing with that rare 1%, the noun affect is pronounced with stress
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Thanks guys.

The problem is, he claims that he is not using the word as a noun. Again, I've have tried to convince him otherwise, but he won't accept.

I'll see if your replies change his mind.
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Please can the experts explain why affect is incorrect in more detail and could you also let us know why you are an English grammar expert.

Specifically it would be interesting to know why it is you believe affect has been used as a noun and not a verb. Is it the case that the first sentence is asking whether the BBC had an influence, rather than the writer stating the BBC had caused or
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The original statement ponders "What effect." Only a noun can be used in that structure.

Compare these two pairings:

The BBC has had an effect on how language is used. What effect has it had? -- Can you see how this is clearly a noun?

The BBC effected sweeping changes in its management hierarchy. How did it effect them? -- Can you see how this is a
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Then why is that many quality newspapers use "what affect" and "what effect"?

The original poster is saying that "what effect" is correct and that "what affect" is incorrect in the question posed "I wonder what affect the BBC has had on making English the lingua franca"

Other posters have said, "what effect" is correct in that example and you appear to be saying it is wro
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No, I'm saying "effect" is correct, and giving evidence to support that it's a noun. Your question was "how do you know it's a noun" and I'm showing how it cannot be the use of effect as a verb.
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And the question I am asking is why is it wrong to say "affect" is a verb in the sentence "I wonder what affect the BBC..."?

What determines it is a noun that is called for in that sentence structure?

I was sure I knew the difference in meaning between the two words, but it appears you are saying the noun meaning of effect can also be the same as the verb affect.

I am a
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Let's pretend that I never made the prior post, since that seems to have confused you.
AnonymousI am also confused by the fact quality newspapers use both "what effect" and "what affect". It was my understanding that both could be used dependent on the meaning of the sentence. You seem to suggest that the grammar of quality newspapers is suspect.
Can you point

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