In the following sentence : "In this land, no one had to obey any law as they did not invent them."
can "no one" turn to "they" without further accord between both subjects or is it awkward ?
Also, should it be "as they" or "since they" ?
Thanks in advance for your reply.
Hi You're right. The subject and pronoun have to agree in number. Rewriting the sentence seems the only option.
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Hi
You're right. The subject and pronoun have to agree in number.
Rewriting the sentence seems the only option. This happens even to native speakers a lot, by the way.
Suggestion:
The people did not have to obey .....as they..
None of the people had to..
*At the online Cambridge dictionary for learners, there is a good explanation about how to use: bec
anonymousCan "no one" turn to "they" without further accord between both subjects or is it awkward?
Yes, but not in formal writing.
Even the greatest writers in the English language have used 'they' this way for centuries, but typically in fiction, not in academic pa