Hi
I have some questions about "none".
I learn that "none" can can take a singular verb or a plural verb, with the difference in the meaning.
There are some letters. None are for me. (Not any) None is for me. (Not one)
I think I am correct here.
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I see this in the dictionary and I want to know if I have understood it correctly.
We don’t use none where we mean no one or nobody:
They had a wonderful time and luckily no one was injured.
Not: … and luckily none was injured.
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/no-none-and-none-of?q=none
I am not able to understand this.
So, can't I say this?
There was an accident at the Town's Square. Luckily, none were/was injured.
Please give your views.
vsuresh There are some letters. None are for me. (Not any) None is for me.
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vsureshThere are some letters. None are for me. (Not any) None is for me. (Not one)
Yes, those are correct. Even so, in less careful speech almost everybody says "None are for me" in both situations.
vsureshWe don’t use none where we mean no one or nobody
Correct. 'none' is used as the negation of the pronoun 'one