He is able to have told them all the secrets
I know this sentence doesn't make any sense, because "is' is the present tense but "to have told" is the past tense, but if we're thinking about a situation in which "he" has a supernatural power that he can change the past, can we think the sentence is grammatically correct and does make sense?
fire1 I know this sentence doesn't make any sense True. It's pretty bad as sentences go, but it works with liable . He is liable to have told them all the secrets.
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fire1I know this sentence doesn't make any sense
True. It's pretty bad as sentences go, but it works with liable.
He is liable to have told them all the secrets.
(It's likely that he has told them all the secrets.)
fire1because "is' is the present tense
True.
fi