We have a two-day holiday We have two days' holiday.
I understand both sentences are perfect English? And tertium non datur? :-)
On the other hand, I encounted the following remark on an English forum the other day: (taken from a native English speaker's post):
QUOTE ...But strangely, I am fine with 'We made nearly a two days' journey of it', and at the moment, I can't account for it. I suspect it has to do with the verb. UNQUOTE
If you could comment on this "oddity"?
mus-te
Top answer
MUSCOVITE I am fine with 'We made nearly a two days' journey of it' I am not. Sorry. - A.
— Avangi
MUSCOVITE I am fine with 'We made nearly a two days' journey of it' I am not.
Sorry.
- A.
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