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Anonymous Posted 20 years ago
Grammar
a singular noun taking "the" for free
0 Hi, 02 br
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00 I have two sentences below with the singular noun "community." Kindly tell me why the writer has "the" in front of it? I see a lot of singular nouns automatically have "the" in front of them in sentences without being subject to the usual rules of specificity and prior precedents. Kindly tell me why they are so. 02 br
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00 Ex. 02 br
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00 1. ... presents Christ as an alternative to 01 i 00 the non-believing military community 02 i 00 . 02 br
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00 2. The event was well supported by 01 i 00 the local community 02 i 00 . 02 br
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00 For your reference, a singular non is always singular and must have a word such as "a", "an", "the", or "my" in front of it. 0-
02 br
00 I have two sentences below with the singular noun "community." Kindly tell me why the writer has "the" in front of it? I see a lot of singular nouns automatically have "the" in front of them in sentences without being subject to the usual rules of specificity and prior precedents. Kindly tell me why they are so. 02 br
02 br
00 Ex. 02 br
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00 1. ... presents Christ as an alternative to 01 i 00 the non-believing military community 02 i 00 . 02 br
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00 2. The event was well supported by 01 i 00 the local community 02 i 00 . 02 br
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00 For your reference, a singular non is always singular and must have a word such as "a", "an", "the", or "my" in front of it. 0-
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4 Answers
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1 b 00 Specificity 02 b 00 -- #1 refers to a specific community (the 01 i 00 military 02 i 00 one) and #2 refers to the specific community which is 01 i 00 local 02 i 00 to the event. 0-
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0 Thank you. I think I heard from another Mr. Guru that specificity arises from the overall content of the writing, not to the specificity of a single element in the writing. Now I need your clear explanation on specificity regarding the placement of "the" in front of nouns. 0-
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0 Hi, 02 br
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01 font 00 I have two sentences below with the singular noun "community." Kindly tell me why the writer has "the" in front of it? I see a lot of singular nouns automatically have "the" in front of them in sentences without being subject to the usual rules of specificity and prior precedents. Kindly tell me why they are so. 02 font
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01 font 00 I have two sentences below with the singular noun "community." Kindly tell me why the writer has "the" in front of it? I see a lot of singular nouns automatically have "the" in front of them in sentences without being subject to the usual rules of specificity and prior precedents. Kindly tell me why they are so. 02 font
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0 I'm not sure what you may mean by "the usual rules". 02 br
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00 The word 01 i 00 communities 02 i 00 is a perfectly good word, so I don't see how it would be restricted to the singular. 02 br
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00 In the singular, however, the only choices for an article are 01 i 00 a 02 i 00 or 01 i 00 the 02 i 00 .
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00 The word 01 i 00 communities 02 i 00 is a perfectly good word, so I don't see how it would be restricted to the singular. 02 br
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00 In the singular, however, the only choices for an article are 01 i 00 a 02 i 00 or 01 i 00 the 02 i 00 .
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