A separate to-infinitive phrase

Question

Various kingdoms on the Korean peninsula had warred with each other, and by 57 BCE they had consolidated through conquest to three: Koguryo (or Goguryeo) in the northern half of Korea, extending north of the Yalu River; Paekche in the southwestern quarter of the Korean peninsula; and Silla in the southeastern quarter. To become known as the Three Kingdoms period, it was to last until the year 668, when Silla triumph over Koguryo and the peninsula was divided between two kingdoms.
[Source: Korea: Three Kingdoms http://www.fsmitha.com/h1/rel-korea.htm]

I'd like to know what part "To become known as the Three Kingdoms period" modifies in the text.
Thank you in advance for your help.

AlpheccaStars · Accepted Answer

Do you mean "what does the infinitive clause modify?"
I don't think it is a modifier.

Park sang joon · Answer

Thank you, AlpheccStars, for your kind answer.

I also know to-infinitive can't modify "it," so I don't know what the to-infinitive is doing.
Then I'd like to know what role the to-infinitive plays.

AlpheccaStars · Answer

I changed my mind -
Normally it would have been a subject complement:
It was to become known as the Three Kingdoms period, lasting until...

and the author chose to move it. So I suppose the best analysis would be a subject modifier.

Park sang joon · Answer

Thank you, AlpheccaStars, for your continuing support.

Then I'd like to know if in the current text, I can take it that the to-infinitive modifies "it."

AlpheccaStars · Answer

park sang joonThen I'd like to know if in the current text, I can take it that the to-infinitive modifies "it."

That's the best way to interpret it. "it" is the subject. I don't particularly care for that sentence structure. It seems awkward.

A separate to-infinitive phrase

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