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Pieanne Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

A "has been"

0(Should it be hyphenated?)02br
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00Grammatically speaking, shouldn't it be a "was"?02br
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00That expression is also common in French, and I'm wondering how it can be justified in terms of grammar... Since the present perfect always has a connection with the present, would it be the only use when it refers to the past?02br
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00Thank you for your thoughts.0-
  

Top answer

0Hi Pieanne,02br 02br 00When you say someone is a 'has-been', you are saying that he/she 01i 00has been02i 00 someone important, but that now they no longer have that importance. 02br 02br 00Best wishes, Clive0-

  • 0Hi Pieanne,02br 02br 00When you say someone is a 'has-been', you are saying that he/she 01i 00has been02i 00 someone important, but that now they no longer have that importance.
  • 02br 02br 00Best wishes, Clive0-
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4 Answers
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0Hi Pieanne,02br
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00When you say someone is a 'has-been', you are saying that he/she 01i00has been02i00 someone important, but that now they no longer have that importance. So, there is a connection to the present.02br
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00Perhaps it's better to be a has-been than a 'never-will-be', what do you think?02br
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0Hi, Clive, thank you for your answer 05002br
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00I'm quite aware of the meaning, but How can we justify the connection to the present? To me it's more of a "used-to"... or a "was". You don't say "He's been famous for X years, but now he isn't"? Or do you? 051010id111id7
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0Hi Pieanne,02br
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00Well, you could say 'I have been a movie star (01i00implying02i00 but now I'm not one any longer)'. 02br
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00The negative aspect comes from people who go around defining themselves today by what they once were in the past. The implication, as you know, is that they are no longer as successful today.02br
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0OK, Clive, Thank you! 050010id1

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