A question about auxiliary verbs

Question

Can someone correct this?A phrase like:...was driving...Is this a phrase in the past progressive? ( be+ing) And is it a passive voice? And there is no modality here because there is no modal auxiliary, right?What about:(he) Would have reached....Is this pefect form? past time? MOdality= epistimic? (because somethings is stated as the case?) And a active voice?

Andriy Lapin · Accepted Answer

Dear friend,

Justafreak...was driving...

Is this a phrase in the past progressive? Yes, it surely is. ( be+ing) And is it a passive voice? No, it is not. Passive voice requires a past participle (eg was being driven) And there is no modality here because there is no modal auxiliary, right? You are quite right.

He would have reached... is a perfect form (manifested by have + ed-participle); it is also a modal phrase and is in the active voice.

JustafreakMOdality= epistimic? (because somethings is stated as the case?)

- You probably mean epistEmic possibility that modals can express, but this epistemic meaning is limited to may/might, must, have (got) to. 'Would' in this case is used in the hypothetical sense and has contrary-to-fact interpretation (He did not reach...).

Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff

CalifJim · Answer

...was driving...

Is this a phrase in the past progressive? Yes. ... And is it a passive voice? No. And there is no modality here because there is no modal auxiliary, right? Right.

(he) Would have reached..

Is this pefect form? I'd call it a modal perfect. past time? Yes. MOdality= epistimic? (because somethings is stated as the case?) ??? The term epistemic doesn't apply here. And a active voice? Yes.

CJ

A question about auxiliary verbs

Top answer

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

Related Questions