I have been told that the first sentence is redundant and/or grammatically incorrect on the basis of the sequence of the words "I" and "John". Apparently, the first person "i" should follow the third person " John" and not vice-versa.
Please comment on the validity of both sentences. Thanks! Naren
Top answer
They are both valid; neither contains any redundancy or grammatical error. #2 is merely more polite and therefore generally accepted.
— Mister Micawber
They are both valid; neither contains any redundancy or grammatical error.
#2 is merely more polite and therefore generally accepted.
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