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Mudclay Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

A + headache/cold/fever (count noun)

Dear teachers,

Are these nouns countable?

I have a headache.
I have a cold.
I have a fever.
I have a stomachache.
I have a backache.
I have a cough.

If I used them in plural form what would be the meaning of...

I have headaches.
I have colds.
I have fevers.
etc.....

Thank you!
  

Top answer

You will normally say something like I often have colds. I have these headaches that last for hours. or Kids often have fevers.

— Ivanhr

  • You will normally say something like I often have colds.
  • I have these headaches that last for hours.
  • or Kids often have fevers.
  • It's unlikely that you will just say "I have colds(headaches/fevers".
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11 Answers
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You will normally say something like

I often have colds.

I have these headaches that last for hours.
or
Kids often have fevers.

It's unlikely that you will just say "I have colds(headaches/fevers".
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Thank you teacher!

I see. So, you never say I have colds/fevers etc.

I thought it could be since they are countable nouns. But, are they grammatically correct?
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I suppose there could be contexts in which your examples might work but offhand I can't think of any. Yes, they are grammatical but they still need the right context.
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Finding the right context might be the problem.But, I'm sure native speakers do not say them. I haven't heard someone says ' I have fevers/colds.' Thank you for your time teacher.
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You might also want to know that it should be
I haven't heard anyone say (not says) but I have heard someone say (not says).
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Oh, I got confused. Why "say" not 'says'? (anyone say)My English teacher taught us that indefinite pronouns like; anyone,someone,somebody and everybody are always singular. And can you teach me the difference of using someone and anyone?
Or if I may correct my sentence, could it be like this?
I haven't heard anyone have said....

Please help me. Thanks
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mudclayOh, I got confused. Why "say" not 'says'? (anyone say)My English teacher taught us that indefinite pronouns like; anyone,someone,somebody and everybody are always singular. And can you teach me the difference of using someone and anyone?Or if I may correct my sentence, could it be like this?I haven't heard anyone have has said....Please help me. Thanks
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Regarding anyone vs someone, I suggest that you post this question in a new thread.

As for your correction, "I haven't heard anyone have/has said" is incorrect English. In this kind of structure, you need either an infinitve or an ing form.

I haven't heard anyone say that.
or
I haven't heard anyone saying that.
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Thank you teacher Ivanhr! Forgive me if I have so many questions. I'm one of the learners here. If you may, I have my last question.

What kind of structure is S + have/has (n't) + Vpp + Vbase/Ving?
Is there any rule for this?

Thanks!
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I'm not sure if there's a name for it. Perhaps someone else will know. Take care
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