A few grammar doubts.

Question

Hi,I have a couple of doubts:1. "I've been meaning to tell you".Why has it ("meaning to") been used this way? Can someone explain me how can i use it more often, in general?2. People use sentences like:a) Could it be more interesting?        I comprehend it as "Its most interesting" being said emphatically. That is superlative form of the adjective is used, like the use of "most" in the way I understand it. Am I right?b)  "I couldn't agree more".       My logic of understanding does not apply here, as a negative is being used. Please explain.3. I had studied in junior high that in a sentence, there should not  be usage of negatives more than once, still I've come across sentences  like:                             "He is not no idiot.".                            "There  ain't no particular way."Isn't this kinda usage wrong? If it's correct, then how?4. Shania Twain's song goes:                             "That don't impress me much". Shouldn't that be "That doesn't impress me much"?Thanks!

Luxurious · Accepted Answer

"He is not no idiot.".
"There ain't no particular way." WE can't say so. Where did you find this?

"That don't impress me much". Actually in songs, in colloquial speech such things are quite often, but grammatically it's incorrect.

Feebs11 · Answer

SimiHi,

I have a couple of doubts:

1. "I've been meaning to tell you".

Why has it ("meaning to") been used this way? Can someone explain me how can i use it more often, in general? I have been intending to ...
I have been intending to/meaning to go shopping
I have been intending to/meaning to read the new Harry Potter

2. People use sentences like:

a) Could it be more interesting?

I comprehend it as "Its most interesting" being said emphatically. That is superlative form of the adjective is used, like the use of "most" in the way I understand it. Am I right? "More" is used to make a comparative. "Could it be interesting?" > Could it be more interesting?"

b) "I couldn't agree more".

My logic of understanding does not apply here, as a negative is being used. Please explain. I am tempted to say just take this as an idiom! "More" here is "to a greater extent".

3. I had studied in junior high that in a sentence, there should not be usage of negatives more than once, still I've come across sentences like:

"He is not no idiot.".

"There ain't no particular way."

Isn't this kinda usage wrong? If it's correct, then how? These are double negatives, which logically will produce a positive statement. [He is] not [no idiot] = He is stupid/an idiot [There is] not [no particular way] = There is a particular way.

It is incorrect, but commonly spoken. Do not use in formal language.

4. Shania Twain's song goes:

"That don't impress me much".

Shouldn't that be "That doesn't impress me much"? Formally yes, but this is a song, and they can often ignore formal grammar.

Thanks!

Simi · Answer

Hey,

Thanks feebs, you really cleared my doubts in a great way.

Still am not that sure if I am clear with the doubt no. 2. Could you or someone else please explain it again giving certain examples in both positive and negative usage?

Thanks.

Simi · Answer

Nobody's gonna help me?<img class='emoticon' style='Width:19px;Height:19px;' data-delaysrc='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/6.gif' src='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/6.gif' alt='Emotion: sad'/>

Clive · Answer

Hi,

Let me offer some more comments.

2. People use sentences like:

a) Could it be more interesting?

I comprehend it as "Its most interesting" being said emphatically. That is superlative form of the adjective is used, like the use of "most" in the way I understand it. Am I right?

Consider a TV set in a store, that has the price of $1. Coul;d it be more expensive? Yes, it could. The price could be $2, or $200. In other words, this question can just be a normal question, in such a context.

However, now consider that I find a TV set that has a price of $2,000,000. I say 'Could it be more expensive?', meaning that I think it could not be more expensive. This is a hyperbolic question, an exaggerated question that is not meant literally.

b) "I couldn't agree more".

My logic of understanding does not apply here, as a negative is being used. Please explain. The meaning here is that I agree so completely that it is not possible for me to agree more than that.

If you still have questions about this, please post again.

Please also note that the word 'doubt' is not normally used in the way that you are using it. Say 'I have questions'rather than 'I have doubts'.

Best wishes, Clive

Sooris · Answer

People misspelling 'grammar' as 'grammer' worries me most.

Simi · Answer

Thanks Clive. Now I understand it well. <img class='emoticon' style='Width:19px;Height:19px;' data-delaysrc='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/1.gif' src='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/1.gif' alt='Emotion: smile'/>

Simi · Answer

Feebs11
Simi
3. I had studied in junior high that in a sentence, there should not be usage of negatives more than once, still I've come across sentences like:

"He is not no idiot.".

"There ain't no particular way."

Isn't this kinda usage wrong? If it's correct, then how? These are double negatives, which logically will produce a positive statement. [He is] not [no idiot] = He is stupid/an idiot [There is] not [no particular way] = There is a particular way.

It is incorrect, but commonly spoken. Do not use in formal language.

I'm again asking a question on this thread. I'd understood it well, but now I am coming across something thats contradicting the explaination Feebs provided on point 3. She says they are called double negatives. So how would anybody justify this?

"Hey, I ought to leave the young thing alone,
But ain't no sunshine when she's gone, only darkness everyday.
Ain't no sunshine when she's gone,
And this house just ain't no home anytime she goes away."

Does this mean "There is sunshine when she's gone" and "This house is a home anytime she goes"? Doesn't make much sense and I am confused. I know it's grammatically incorrect and it's a song, but I'd like to know how people use it in an informal language. Please explain.

Thanks.

Simi · Answer

Nobody's helping? <img class='emoticon' style='Width:19px;Height:19px;' data-delaysrc='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/6.gif' src='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/6.gif' alt='Emotion: sad'/>

Linguaphile · Answer

SimiNobody's helping?

Double negatives are used in informal English and that mostly shows the person tries to look bold.

Sawyer: I give nothing to nobody. (from the TV Show "Lost")

A few grammar doubts.

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