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Lcchang Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

A conditional sentence

0Dear teachers,02br
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00I have a multiple-choice question as follows,02br
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01font00If we don't entertain our out-of-town buyers, they 01i00_____02i00 such big orders.02font02br
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01font00a) will place02font02br
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01font00b) might not place02font02br
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01font00c) would place02font02br
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01font00d) wouldn't place02font02br
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01font00The answer is B. Why?02font02br
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00Frankly speaking, I think none of the answers is the one I would choose because I prefer to use 01font00"will not place"02font00. Am I right? Please advise.02br
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00LcChang0-
  

Top answer

0" might " is a word of degree of certainty. I'd say less than 50%. 02br 02br 00in this case, the chance they place such big orders is less than 50% if we dont entertain the buyers.

  • 0" might " is a word of degree of certainty.
  • I'd say less than 50%.
  • 02br 02br 00in this case, the chance they place such big orders is less than 50% if we dont entertain the buyers.
  • 02br 02br 00" will " is a word of degree of cetainty.
  • I'd say about 95%.
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13 Answers
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0" might " is a word of degree of certainty. I'd say less than 50%. 02br
02br
00in this case, the chance they place such big orders is less than 50% if we dont entertain the buyers. 02br
02br
00" will " is a word of degree of cetainty. I'd say about 95%. 0-
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1font00If we don't entertain our out-of-town buyers, they 01i00_____02i00 such big orders.02font02br
02br
01font00Again, this is the type of "if" clause we have been discussing here for a while. Based on the context and given answers, "B" is the logical answer becasue the tone is set up to b
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0 Either 01i00will not place02i00 (01i00won't place02i00) or 01i00might not place02i00 is correct.02br
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01i00will not place02i00 means there is no doubt about it. No entertainment = no orders.02br
01i00might not place02i00 means there is some doubt. No
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0I understand now. Thanks.02br
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00But I still think it is kindda weird since the word "01font00might02font00" is a 01font00past tense modal verb02font00 here....the grammar book always tells us we have to use 01font00future tense02font00 s
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1font00If I get paid, I would buy you lunch. 00 00 I think it is fine.02font0-
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0So 01font00d)02font00 is also correct, isn't it?02br
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00LcChang0-
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0Lcchang,02br
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00That's where the grammar book gets confusing. True, "might" is the past tense for "may" according to the rules. However, "might" is used everyday in the present form, or even future.02br
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00Example- 02br
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01font00Mary called from Chicago and said her flight 01font
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0 Hello LCChang02br
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00First I'd like to tell you that, in current English, "01i00would02i00", "01i00could02i00", "01i00might02i00", can be used along with "01i00will02i00" and "01i00may02i00" as a modal of the present tense 01i00when they are used
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1font00If we don't entertain our out-of-town buyers, they will place/would place/might not place such big orders.02br
02br
00 What is the meaning of the sentence? What is 'out-of-town buyers' ?02br
00 I don't think this is a sensible sentence. It maybe that my knowledge of English not up to the standard to fathom out it.02br
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0Hello Rotter02br
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00"Out of town buyers" means "customers from outside the town". "To entertain" in a business context means to take someone out for a meal (or to a club, or to a football match, opera, etc.) in the hope that it will encourage good business relations. 02br
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00MrP0-

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