0
Terr3 Posted 19 years ago
Vocabulary

8 in 1 question

Hi!
Are these phrases ok?

'I can give you rich undreamed of' - rich as a noun?

'or I can give you hurt unbeared of' - hurt as a noun?

'I have my baseborn army underdeveloping somewhere in this world'- baseborn used correctly?

'The math question is so clouding' - clouding used correctly?

'My grand father had fathered my father, and now he's fathering me how to father my son to father his'- Is this ok?

'flamboyant'- does this word mean gay looking?

'hopping about on one leg'- is this the same meaning as 'jumping about on one leg'?

'he's about to flush our squad's total reputation down the toilet, with pee in it'- is this ok for meaning bringing down a reputation to nothing? suggestion?

Thanks in advance- Terr
  

Top answer

flamboyant'- does this word mean gay looking? NO, flashy, read your dictionaries

  • flamboyant'- does this word mean gay looking?
  • NO, flashy, read your dictionaries
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

7 Answers
0
flamboyant'- does this word mean gay looking? NO, flashy, read your dictionaries
0
'I can give you rich undreamed of' - rich as a noun? Riches.

'or I can give you hurt unbeared of' - hurt as a noun? I can cause you unbearable pain

'I have my baseborn army underdeveloping somewhere in this world'- baseborn used correctly? What are you trying to say? What does "underdeveloping"
0
Grammar Geek'I can give you rich undreamed of' - rich as a noun? Riches.

'or I can give you hurt unbeared of' - hurt as a noun? I can cause you unbearable pain

'I have my baseborn army underdeveloping somewhere in this world'- baseborn used correctly? What are you tryi
0
1)Is 'rich' in pural form is the only way to make it a noun? Yes, "riches" is a noun. "Rich" is not.

2)My question is can 'hurt' being used as a noun.
Yes, as in "I"m sorry for the hurt I caused you," but that's usual
0
Hi Grammar Geek:
1), 2), 4), 5), 6) Thank you, these are solved.

3) My only problem remain on this one, for the word 'baseborn son', or '******** son' as alternative. So a man have a son with some woman other than his own wife, if the woman is from lower class that turns the son a ********, what happen if the woman is a rich one, does that make the son ******** too? Does it make any
0
A ******* (not sure if the ** will appear) is simply a child whose parents are not married. If a man has a baby with a rich woman he is not married to, that baby is still a *******, yes. It's rarely used in the U.S. anymore as a simple statement of fact - it is almost always perjorative, and I bet 99% of the people who are called that name came from a married union.

"Baseborn" sounds lik
0
Hi Grammar Geek

I'm well awared of the negativeless, thanks the explanation is very detailed. So as a matter of fact, whether the man was married in the first place or not isn't the question, if he has a son before he marrys a woman, that'll turn the son a ******** as well, now this is not the same from where I from, the very first son a man have would never be called ******** in whichev

Related Questions