Question

Hello!Context:Roger Federer has just won another award (on 2013 - one of his worst seasons ever) in his career and during the ceremony Tim Henman says ironically:He will probably win (once or twice more/again) the fans favourite even when he is not playing.I wonder whether I could say it differently and what would be the difference in meaning if there is any. Just to make sure - I know I am dealing with future time clauses.1)He will probably win (once or twice/again) the fans favourite even when he is not playing anymore.2)He will probably win (once or twice/again) the fans favourite even when he is not playing.I.)He will probably win (once or twice/again) the fans favourite even when he doesn´t play anymore.II.)He will probably win (once or twice/again) the fans favourite even when he doesn´t play.

GPY · Accepted Answer

(1) is clearest that you are talking about the time when he has retired, i.e. finished his career. I prefer (1) over (I).

(II) could be understood to mean that he isn't playing just in a particular tournament, say,

You are using the wrong character for the apostrophe. You are actually typing an acute accent.

Tanner92 · Answer

You prefer (1) over (I) but does (I) mean exactly the same as (1) ? Would (I) mean that I am talking about the time when he has retired? Can I use these interchangeably?

GPY(II) could be understood to mean that he isn't playing just in a particular tournament, say,

Does the (2) work the same way? I mean whether (2) can be understood that I am not playing just in a particular tournament?

GPY(II) could be understood to mean that he isn't playing just in a particular tournament, say,

One more question to this: Could this mean anything else?

GPY · Answer

Tanner92You prefer (1) over (I) but does (I) mean exactly the same as (1) ?

Near enough.

Tanner92Would (I) mean that I am talking about the time when he has retired?

Yes.

Tanner92Does the (2) work the same way? I mean whether (2) can be understood that I am not playing just in a particular tournament?

Possibly, yes. Or when he is not playing for a spell because of injury, for instance.

Tanner92One more question to this: Could this mean anything else?

In the context in which Federer's retirement was being discussed, it would I suppose be understood to refer to Federer post-retirement. But, as I say, it is clearer to include "anymore", or "any more" as I would write it, if that is meant.

Tanner92 · Answer

Thank you very much GPY.

GPYTanner92You prefer (1) over (I) but does (I) mean exactly the same as (1) Near enough.

Do you think you could describe a difference between the two? I am asking because my teacher says that she wouldn´t use (I) as it is not idiomatic. But can´t explain the difference between the two examples- she is not a native speaker. Would a native speaker be more likely to use (1)? Why?

GPY · Answer

Tanner92Do you think you could describe a difference between the two? I am asking because my teacher says that she wouldn´t use (I) as it is not idiomatic. But can´t explain the difference between the two examples- she is not a native speaker. Would a native speaker be more likely to use (1)? Why?

Please note that you are still typing the wrong character for the apostrophe. If possible, you should try to find the correct apostrophe character on your keyboard.

I essentially agree with your teacher. (I) is not actually wrong, but (1) seems a more natural utterance for a native speaker. Unfortunately I cannot think of a helpful way to explain why this is so. It just "seems better".

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