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Mary Francis Jimenez Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

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Could some one explain this please.
Modals like may, might and could are some times followed by "be" why? is this a rule?
I get it that if an aux modal is followed by "have" its the past. But with "be" what does that mean? I also get it that after an aux modal the next verb must be in its base form.

Any info is greatly appreciated
  

Top answer

As a main verb after a modal, "be" is much like any other. " If you have another type of sentence in mind, please post an example.

  • As a main verb after a modal, "be" is much like any other.
  • " If you have another type of sentence in mind, please post an example.
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5 Answers
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As a main verb after a modal, "be" is much like any other.

"I may go to New York."
"I may be wrong."

"be" can also be an auxiliary, forming a progressive tense, for example:

"She could be deceiving us."

If you have another type of sentence in mind, please post an example.
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ok thank GPY

But why is that in some sentence the aux "be" follows a modal, is the a particular usage or particular reason? not for tense purposes.

examples:

  1. It might bebecause…
  2. it may bebecause…..
  3. it cannot be tracke
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Mary Francis JimenezIt might bebecause…it may bebecause…..it cannot be tracke
In your first two examples, the underlying main verb is "be", just as in my example:

"I am wrong" --> "I may/might be wrong"
"it is because ..." --> "it may/might be because ...".

Something has gone slightly wrong with yo
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oh my sorry
3. it can not be tracked....this one i know its a passive.

ok i got it thank you, i was over thinking it.
thank you GPY
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Mary Francis JimenezModals like may, might and could are sometimes followed by "be".
This is a vacuous statement. It tells you about as much as "Cats are sometimes black".

The following are also true.

Modals like can, will, and must are sometimes followed by "be".
Modals like may, migh

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