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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
what is correct: After the varnish has fully dries up or After the varnish has fully dried up
Top answer
The first is ungrammatical (the present perfect tense requires the past participle, "dried"; moreover, the phrase "has dries" cannot be used in English). The second is okay. However, the verb "to dry up" is typically not used like this.
- The first is ungrammatical (the present perfect tense requires the past participle, "dried"; moreover, the phrase "has dries" cannot be used in English).
- The second is okay.
- However, the verb "to dry up" is typically not used like this.
- It is used, for example, in the following: Their source of funding has dried up.
- The drought has caused the lake bed to dry up.
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2 Answers
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The first is ungrammatical (the present perfect tense requires the past participle, "dried"; moreover, the phrase "has dries" cannot be used in English). The second is okay. However, the verb "to dry up" is typically not used like this. It is used, for example, in the following:
Their source of funding has dried up.
The drought has caused the lake bed to dry up.
In th
Their source of funding has dried up.
The drought has caused the lake bed to dry up.
In th
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AnonymousAfter the varnish has fully dried upThis one. You have two verbs. "has dried". When the first of two verbs is "has", "have", or "had", the second of the two is always in its past participle form. ("dries" is a present form; the past participle is "dried".)
CJ
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